My question involves criminal law for the state of:Kansas
My son got a dui in Feb 2013, went to court and was offered a diversion, which he took, at that time we sold his car as he would not be able to drive for a considerable amount of time. The terms of the
diversion were met and a "order of dismissal" was issued on July 2, 2014. We, he and I, assumed that all was good until he got pulled over on Jan 20, 2015 for a headlight not working and was informed by the officer his license was no good. After a few hours on the phone to " driver control" in Topeka I was informed that in order to get his license re-instated he will need to buy and have a breathalizer installed in a vehicle before they would let him have his license back, when I told them he no longer owned a car they said it didn't matter just get one installed in a vehicle he has access to like my truck. Really, so now his punishment also becomes mine? How legal
is it for the state to step in after he has completed a court offered diversion program (which by the way cost quite a bit) and impose more fines and punishment almost 2 years after the initial infraction?
My son got a dui in Feb 2013, went to court and was offered a diversion, which he took, at that time we sold his car as he would not be able to drive for a considerable amount of time. The terms of the
diversion were met and a "order of dismissal" was issued on July 2, 2014. We, he and I, assumed that all was good until he got pulled over on Jan 20, 2015 for a headlight not working and was informed by the officer his license was no good. After a few hours on the phone to " driver control" in Topeka I was informed that in order to get his license re-instated he will need to buy and have a breathalizer installed in a vehicle before they would let him have his license back, when I told them he no longer owned a car they said it didn't matter just get one installed in a vehicle he has access to like my truck. Really, so now his punishment also becomes mine? How legal
is it for the state to step in after he has completed a court offered diversion program (which by the way cost quite a bit) and impose more fines and punishment almost 2 years after the initial infraction?
Drunk and Impaired Driving: Can the State Impose Penalties After the Court
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