My question involves child support in the State of: Texas
The divorce and custody/support was 5 years ago in OK. Ex moved without permission to Tx almost two years ago. I'm current in support (always have been) and pay it directly to my ex every month. Earlier this year I married and moved to Texas as well. This week I received a notice from the Tx AG office stating support will be taken from my pay and I'm ok with that. Another letter stated I am 9 months in arrears. I tried calling with no luck, so I went in person to the office. I was told the ex signed an affidavit that I WAS current, but since TX doesn't have any Oklahoma records, they consider be in arrears and will report to my credit report as such. The office then filed for an investigation with Oklahoma to get proof of being current. I pay directly to my ex because Oklahoma didn't require me to do it through my employer. How can they prove this? In the meantime, I'm told by my employer that my pay will be deducted (I'm ok with that), but my commissions (this is the bulk of my income, being in sales) will be delayed because they have to report the dollar amount to the AG office and see if there will be money held for payments claimed in arrears! I'm not in arrears???!! They have an affidavit from my ex stating this. The ex just wanted to have it automatically done through my employer. What should I do? If they pay extra to my ex, I guarantee I'll never get it back. How can the state of Tx say I'm in arrears without proof AND when they have the affidavit from my ex stating I'm current?
The divorce and custody/support was 5 years ago in OK. Ex moved without permission to Tx almost two years ago. I'm current in support (always have been) and pay it directly to my ex every month. Earlier this year I married and moved to Texas as well. This week I received a notice from the Tx AG office stating support will be taken from my pay and I'm ok with that. Another letter stated I am 9 months in arrears. I tried calling with no luck, so I went in person to the office. I was told the ex signed an affidavit that I WAS current, but since TX doesn't have any Oklahoma records, they consider be in arrears and will report to my credit report as such. The office then filed for an investigation with Oklahoma to get proof of being current. I pay directly to my ex because Oklahoma didn't require me to do it through my employer. How can they prove this? In the meantime, I'm told by my employer that my pay will be deducted (I'm ok with that), but my commissions (this is the bulk of my income, being in sales) will be delayed because they have to report the dollar amount to the AG office and see if there will be money held for payments claimed in arrears! I'm not in arrears???!! They have an affidavit from my ex stating this. The ex just wanted to have it automatically done through my employer. What should I do? If they pay extra to my ex, I guarantee I'll never get it back. How can the state of Tx say I'm in arrears without proof AND when they have the affidavit from my ex stating I'm current?
Interstate Issues: Oklahoma to Texas
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